M HYPE SPLASH
// updates

$|\arctan(x)-\arctan(y)| $for all reals $x,y$ is it bounded?

By Sarah Scott
$\begingroup$

for all $x,y\in \mathbb{R}$ is $$|\arctan(x)-\arctan(y)| $$ bounded?


plotted $\arctan(x)$ in wolfram

graphically $|\arctan(x)| < 3 $ so $$ |\arctan(x)-\arctan(y)| < |\arctan(x)|+|\arctan(y)|< 6$$

I do know the highest slope of unit circle is at angle $\pi /2 $ which seems to be the highest. It is not elegeant using 6. Not sure how to say it elegangly that it is bounded Is it just from definion of arctan?


$\endgroup$

3 Answers

$\begingroup$

Hint: The usual definition of $\arctan x$ says that $-\frac {\pi }2 \lt \arctan x \lt \frac {\pi}2$, so it never gets close to $3$ in absolute value. Now you can use the triangle inequality to get a bound on $|\arctan x - \arctan y|$ Your statement that it is bounded by $6$ is correct, but you can get a lower upper bound.

$\endgroup$ 5 $\begingroup$

As $\;\lvert\arctan x\rvert<\dfrac\pi2$, the triangle inequality results in $$\lvert\arctan x+\arctan y\rvert\le\lvert\arctan x\rvert+\lvert\arctan y\rvert<\pi.$$

$\endgroup$ 4 $\begingroup$

It is better than bounded: arctan is $1$-Lipschitz, i.e $|\arctan x - \arctan y| \le |x-y|$ for all $x,y$. To see this, show that the absolute-value of the derivative of arctan is uniformly bounded by $1$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

Sign up or log in

Sign up using Google Sign up using Facebook Sign up using Email and Password

Post as a guest

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy